We have spent considerable time in the first few weeks of class discussing the way European colonists (Spanish, French & English) interacted with the Native American nations. We have talked about how some consider the resulting decline of Native American population numbers and the disappearance of whole cultures as a form of genocide. Others argue that it was not necessarily the intention of the Europeans to wipe out the Native American nations and therefore lack of intentionality means it can not be considered genocide.
What do you think? Drawing on what you have read and discussed in class, on your own blog, explain your position on this topic.
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